Dr. Pawan Lal

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Director Professor Surgery

Art and Craft of Surgery

Dr Pawan Lal

Professor of Surgery,

Maulana Azad Medical College, New Delhi

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Practice MCQs

 below is the practice mcqs in surgery

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#1. Corkscrew esophagus is seen in which of the following conditions ?

Radiological appearances of diffuse esophageal spasm have been described as: curling esophagus Corkscrew esophagus or - pseudodiverticulosis Diffuse esophageal spasm is a motor disorder of esophagus characterized by repetitive simultaneous non-peristaltic contractions.   Symptoms are substernal chest pain and/or dysphagia   Diagnosed by manometry Also know Nutcracker esophagus also known as 'supersqueezer' esophagus - it is characterized by extremely high-amplitude peristaltic contraction - Symptoms are pain and dysphagia Diagnosed by manometry study which shows peristaltic esophageal contractions with peak amplitudes greater than two standard deviations above the normal values.

#2. All are resected in whipples operation except

  • Correct Answer - C
  • Ans is 'c'
  • Whipples operation (Pancreaticoduodenectomy)
  • is the most commonly performed operation for carcinoma of head of
  • pancreas.
  • It includes resection of:
  • - distal stomach - duodenum
  • - gall bladder - proximal jejunum
  • - CBD - regional lymphatics
  • - head of pancreas
  • Restoration of gastrointestinal continuity requires -
  • pancreaticojejunostomy choledochojejunostomy &
  • - gastrojejunostomy

#3. A 41-year-old man is seen in clinic with bright red rectal bleeding, seen on the toilet tissue intermittently over the last several months. He is an insurance agent, exercises regularly, and eats a well-balanced diet. He denies changes in bowel habits. Family history is unremarkable. His vital signs are normal. His abdomen exam is normal. Digital rectal exam is normal, and blood is identified on the examining finger. Anoscopy shows no other pathology. What is the next best step in diagnosis?

Explanation#1 👆: The correct answer is E. In the absence of an obvious source in the anus or distal rectum, further evaluation is needed. Fecal occult blood test (FOBT) is irrelevant with a history of visible rectal bleeding. CBC is unlikely to be helpful. Flexible sigmoidoscopy only examines part of the colon. While barium enema may identify an abnormality anywhere in the colon, it is not as specific as colonoscopy.

#4. A 62-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department with dark red rectal bleeding and hypotension. Initial hemoglobin is 7.2. She is given intravenous fluids and two units of packed red blood cells but continues to have large amounts of bloody stools. Nasogastric tube effluent is clear bilious fluid. The best choice for identification of the bleeding site at this time is

  • The correct answer is D. While rigid proctoscopy may be done, it is unlikely to identify a source of massive bleeding. The patient is unlikely to be sufficiently stable for the colonoscopy prep or the time required for it. Tagged RBC scan is more sensitive than angiography for identifying the source of bleeding and is not as useful in massive bleeds. Diagnostic laparoscopy would not elucidate the bleeding source. Mesenteric angiography is much more specific for identifying the source and offers the potential for therapy (angiographic embolization) to control bleeding as well in selected cases.

#5. A 56-years Man with history of leg pain at rest, severe CAD. He cannot walk two flights of steps without getting Shortness of Breath. He underwent evaluation and was noted to have complete aortoiliac occlusive disease. He needs surgery. Which one of the following options is acceptable?

  • Explanation Answer-C) The treatment goal in these patients is to reestablish blood flow to the lower extremity. The treatment is based on the findings at angiogram. All the treatment options are valid and are used in treatment of the aortoocclusive disease. Patients with short-segment (TASCA) stenosis in common iliac artery are treated with angioplasty and/or stent placement and the patency results are expected to be comparable to surgery. In patients with long-segment stenosis and good risk patient treatment options would include aortobifemoral bypass. These procedures are long lasting. The long-term patency rates are reported to be 65–90%. Axillobifemoral bypass is utilized in patients with high risk and poor general condition. The patency rates for this group vary between 50–85% in 5 years. The patient described would be an ideal candidate for axillobifemoral bypass.

#6. A 35-year-old man is admitted with systolic blood pressure (BP) of 60 mm Hg and a heart rate (HR) of 150 bpm following a gunshot wound to the liver What is the effect on the kidneys?

Explaination #1. (C) High-output renal failure should be suspected if the BUN continues to rise with urine output >1000–1500 mL/d. It is associated with mild-to-moderate renal insufficiency; in comparison, severe renal injury results in oliguric renal failure. The kidneys do not tolerate ischemia for more than 30–90 minutes. Hypothermia is protective. There is a decrease in creatinine clearance. Vasopressors aggravate the deleterious effects of shock.
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